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http://w.youtube.com/watch?v=KefIe0xwD6w Pepsi signed up Argentina's super star Lionel Messi, Netherlands' Robin Van Persie, Sergio Aguero and Jack Wilshere (all players expecting to play in this year's World Cup) for its2014 World Cup advertising campaign. Now, Coca Cola (the arch-rival of Coca Cola) has been the official sponsor of the FIFA World Cup since1950. How come this appears to be100% in accordance with "FIFA's World Cup Sponsorship Laws"?
I believe it must have been worked thoroughly by the authorities to avoid any legal glitch or implications as we are all awrare the adverstising is governed by both Federal Law and Stae Law.
Federal Trade Cmmission FTC is the main Federal Agency that takes action against the unlawful advertising.
Moreover it must have been in the business interest of two competitor's Pepsi and Coca Cola to go for it.
State and Local Governments also go after Businesses that Promote their Business through unlawful Advertising.
usually this is the responsibility of the state attorney general, the consumer protection agency, and the local district attorney.
Consumers and competitors may also be able to proceed directly against the advertiser.
Since what you describe happened (I assume it is true), then there should be a way to make it happen legally.
Now, I do NOT know the details of the agreements and their contractual obligations and their legal implications. It is all in the details , and there is always "devil in the details"
If you have access to these two agreements/contracts (Coca Cola/Fifa sponsorship agreement sine1950 as you say) and (Pepsi Cola agreement with the superstar names you mentioned) then you will need a legal review of the terns and conditions in these2 agreements to see how this situation materialized oin2014 !!
I suspect that there is no legal/contractual conflict between the two agreements, but this is for lawyers to do their homework and verify !!
Thank you for the invitation but the subject is not within my expertiese. Conceptually, I understand that having a sponsor (or sponsors) doesn't prohibit other from participating in the campaign.
Good Day!!!
Since i dont know the details agreements of both soft drink giants with the FIFA, so i am unable to comment about it. But i am sure there must be a legal way for doing it, otherwise it can't be done in such a bog event.
I dont Know, I'm not watcing the footbal cup.
As there is a governing body for the advertisements and I think but not sure, it has been a on table discussions between the two companies along with the governing body to make the event profitable for all of three.
and one more thing I want to express here, that, they are business people, and the main aim of advertisement is to give or make presence in mass, and both the companies have their settled market segment and the variation for changing is not so critical, ratherly they have become the subsitutes of each other. If Pepsi is not there than the customer would go for coca cola, same vice versa.
Such events are not the grounds of customer ratio war or price war or competetion, but they are the stage to appeal in mass for such a large public which is in front of TV. Hardly the companies get such chance to see the consumers sticking to their TVs at the same time.
I do not follow footbal cup
Dear : Khatim
thanks for the invitation
+
sure smart question
&
i think i do agree with the answe given by Mr,: Mohammed thiab
I don't know, but may be it because of their business agreement between Coca and Pepsi. May be FIFA wanted the money from Pepsi who were able to pay more than Coca, or Pepsi payed money to Coca to let them advertise their products to the world cup.
